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Vreleksá The Alurhsa Word for Constructed: Creativity in both scripts and languages
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kyonides
Joined: 28 Aug 2008 Posts: 301
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Posted: Tue Nov 04, 2008 11:39 am Post subject: Perfect Tenses marked by a prefix? |
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I was wondering if there was any natlang that included such a feature. Just take a look at these "examples" so you get the right idea.
Normally:
I have eaten
With the prefix:
I haeaten or haveaten or heaten
In Kexyana:
Noe haeni mereneon
With prefix:
Noe haemereneon
That's a feature I'd like to include in a future conlang, not in Kexyana. _________________ Seos nivo adgene Kizne tikelke
The Internet might be either your best friend or your worst enemy. It just depends on whether or not she has a bad hair day. |
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StrangeMagic Admin
Joined: 18 Apr 2007 Posts: 640
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Posted: Tue Nov 04, 2008 6:13 pm Post subject: |
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Hmm, not those natlangs that I know.
In Spanish, it uses a "haber" which conjugates and is added in front of the past participle. (But wait, I can't remember but one of you were Spanish?)
In Chinese, it doesn't really have a perfect tense. Usually, you would just add 了 after the verb.
In Korean, the verb conjugates (still need to learn exactly how) but I believe it involves 죠. If anybody knows about the Korean one, please do tell me! ^_^ |
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eldin raigmore Admin
Joined: 03 May 2007 Posts: 1621 Location: SouthEast Michigan
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Posted: Tue Nov 04, 2008 7:08 pm Post subject: |
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You should check out Joan B. Hill's (Joan Bybee's) "Verb Morphology" book, or whatever the title was. It was written in the eighties.
Also look at Comries "Tense" and "Aspect".
Payne's "Describing Morphosyntax" has references to some of these books, if you can't find them from what I've said above.
I believe there are languages which do have a retrospective ("perfect") that is not analytic -- not lightverb+participle -- but is morphological instead.
But I can't think of any.
Look at
http://wals.info/feature/68
It seems to say there are 80 languages in their 222-language sample that could have a synthetic, morphological retrospective rather than a lightverb+participle analytic, periphrastic retrospective. Or at least it could be saying that.
Lightverb+nonfinite verbform (e.g. participle) is, according the the chapter text at http://wals.info/feature/description/68, the typical way cross-linguistically of constructing the "perfect", but they have only 28 languages in their sample that they specifically give such constructions for; I have to assume that means that at least 26 (probably more) of the languages in the group of 80 "other perfect" languages also use a periphrastic or analytic "perfect", probably of a lightverb+participle or lightverb+(other nonfinite verbform) type, such as "to be"+participle.
The authors of the WALS.info chapters are quite approachable and do return e-mails with answers to questions. You might write to the author(s) of chapter 68 and ask for a look at the original data, or just ask him/her a question. Probably a better idea would be to check out some of the books or articles referred to by that chapter's bibliography first; having looked at a few of them, then write the author.
Does that help? I hope so. _________________ "We're the healthiest horse in the glue factory" - Erskine Bowles, Co-Chairman of the deficit reduction commission |
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eldin raigmore Admin
Joined: 03 May 2007 Posts: 1621 Location: SouthEast Michigan
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Posted: Wed Nov 05, 2008 11:12 pm Post subject: Re: Perfect Tenses marked by a prefix? |
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kyonides wrote: | I was wondering if there was any natlang that included such a feature. Just take a look at these "examples" so you get the right idea.
Normally:
I have eaten
With the prefix:
I haeaten or haveaten or heaten
In Kexyana:
Noe haeni mereneon
With prefix:
Noe haemereneon
That's a feature I'd like to include in a future conlang, not in Kexyana. | By the way:
Something like that has happened in the case of Romance morphological futures.
They come from infinitive+"to have".
In other words, an analytic/periphrastic Vulgate Latin phrase which would have literally translated as "I have to eat" developed over time to merge the infinitive "to eat" with the first-person-singular "I have" and come up with the morphological future 1S for "eat".
The "-ment" adverbs in Romance languages, such as "ferocement" (ferociously), also came from Latin phrases; this one from one meaning essentially "with a feral mind". In fact there are cases where conjoined adverbs leave the "-ment" off of the first one.
The English "-ly" adverbs may come from "like" or may come from a word meaning "body". English "-ward" adverbs are pretty transparent, though.
So; to get back to it; I don't see why something like what kyonides asks about can't have happened in a natlang; I just don't know of one where it has. _________________ "We're the healthiest horse in the glue factory" - Erskine Bowles, Co-Chairman of the deficit reduction commission |
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Neqitan
Joined: 24 Sep 2008 Posts: 27
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Posted: Fri Nov 07, 2008 10:52 pm Post subject: |
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StrangeMagic wrote: | In Spanish, it uses a "haber" which conjugates and is added in front of the past participle. (But wait, I can't remember but one of you were Spanish?) |
Lol, Kyonides and I are native Spanish speakers.
StrangeMagic wrote: | In Chinese, it doesn't really have a perfect tense. Usually, you would just add 了 after the verb. |
I'm still wondering what defines a "word" in Chinese. If the 了 particle is considered part of the word, then we've found the language we were looking for!
Also, Arabic has a "perfective" conjugation we could consider as a perfect verb form (ahem! "aspect").
But the problem here is... Arabic only has two conjugations! (Imperfective and Perfective.)
eldin reigmore wrote: | So; to get back to it; I don't see why something like what kyonides asks about can't have happened in a natlang; I just don't know of one where it has. |
Yeah, you're right. The Perfect aspect seems to be common through languages, or at least more common than the inchoative aspect. |
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