Vreleksá

kyonides · Joined: 28 Aug 2008 Posts: 301

...what kind of changes should I keep in mind?

IIRC, the actual word order now is SVO, but here's a more detailed explanation on it.

(1 Adverb) + (Subject) + (Verb) + (Ind. Object) + (D. Object) + (Adverbs)

Some (available) variations are...

(1 Adverb) + (Ind. Object) + (Verb) + (Subject) + (D. Object) + (Adverbs)

(1 Adverb) + (Subject) + (Yes/POS) + (Verb) + (Ind. Object) + (D. Object) + (Adverbs)

(1 Adverb) + (Subject) + (Verb) + (No(t)/NEG) (Ind. Object) + (D. Object) + (Adverbs)

Direct objects may be preceded by prepositions if they have a positive meaning or connotation, or followed by postpositions if they have a negative one.

Well, would it be still possible to change it to a conlang with SOV word order or not? Or do these specifications allow me to tell the people that they can use either the unoriginal SVO or the more unusual SOV word order? Of course, that would mean that my conpeople's texts should be written using one of those styles in a very consistent way...

I apologize now just in case these sounds weird because it doesn't make any sense to you. (I'm not a native speaker, you know...)
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kyonides · Joined: 28 Aug 2008 Posts: 301

Well, maybe there was no problem with changing the word order after all...
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eldin raigmore · Posted: Sat Oct 04, 2008 9:15 pm Post subject:

Traditionally, when a language changes its dominant word-order from VO to OV or vice-versa, this turns co-ordinate or "co-subordinate" clauses into genuine out-and-out subordinate clauses, making things like participles, infinitives, and other non-finite forms of verbs (whether verbal adjectives or verbal nouns), as well as various subjunctive moods, important. (Maybe a mood that used to be used mostly for something else becomes used mostly for subjoining subordinate clauses?).

I don't know if that theory was ever proven. Or disproven.
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